Mathematical induction can be applied to prove results involving the
n-th derivative of a function. The steps that we know of in H2 mathematics are still the same.
Let's use mathematical induction to prove the result: if

then
)
.
Let the statement be
)
for

.
When

,
![\\\text{LHS}
\\= \frac{d}{dx}\left(e^x sin x\right)
\\= e^x cos x + e^x sin x
\\=e^x\left[\sqrt{2} sin \left(x + \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \right]
\\=\text{RHS, when }n = 1](http://www.codecogs.com/eq.latex?\\\text{LHS} \\= \frac{d}{dx}\left(e^x sin x\right) \\= e^x cos x + e^x sin x\\=e^x\left[\sqrt{2} sin \left(x + \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \right]\\=\text{RHS, when }n = 1)
Therefore the statement is true

.
Assume that the statement is true for

, i.e.
)
.
We want to show that the statement is true for

, i.e.
} e^x sin\left(x + \frac{1}{4}(k+1)\pi \right))
To obtain the (
k + 1)-th derivative, we differentiate

one more time.
![= 2^{\frac{1}{2}k}\left[e^x \sqrt{2} sin\left(x + \frac{1}{4}k\pi + \frac{1}{4}\pi\right)\right]](http://www.codecogs.com/eq.latex?= 2^{\frac{1}{2}k}\left[e^x \sqrt{2} sin\left(x + \frac{1}{4}k\pi + \frac{1}{4}\pi\right)\right])
, which simpliflies to the desired result.
Therefore the statement is true for

if it is true for

.
Hence the statement is true by mathematical induction.